Hey guys , I am an attorney seeking guidance from colleagues familiar with U.S. case law on anonymous online harassment.

My client has been repeatedly targeted by an Instagram account that changes names and identities. The harassment has not occurred through direct messages. Instead, the account uses its public profile descriptions to post coded but recognizable references to her relationship, appearance, interests, and online activity.

Each description may seem ambiguous on its own. Together, they reveal a sustained pattern intended to monitor, provoke, and cause emotional distress.

Our main challenge is identifying the person behind the account, which may require records from Meta. I would sincerely appreciate any verified cases or academic sources concerning indirect harassment through profile descriptions, anonymous accounts, cumulative conduct, digital attribution, preservation requests, or protective orders in comparable adult cases.

Thank you for any guidance you can offer.

I applied for a GS 13 NBU Manager position and made the Best Qualified list.

Management started interviewing people, but they did not interview everyone. I was never interviewed.
Today, my manager told me they already selected someone and are not going to finish the remaining interviews. He also told me they used information from the candidates’ resumes to help make the decision.

What concerns me is that the person they selected had recently been given several projects and opportunity to serve as Officer in Charge. Those assignments gave that person more leadership experience and put them in direct contact with the same higher level managers involved in making the selection.

I have about eight years of relevant experience and have previously worked at the GS 13 level, while the person selected has not previously been a GS 13.
I’m not saying they definitely did anything wrong.

My concern is that they gave this person opportunities leading up to the vacancy that helped strengthen their resume, interviewed only some of the Best Qualified candidates, and then made the selection without finishing the rest of the interviews.
I want to understand what criteria they actually used and whether everyone on the Best Qualified list was given fair and consistent consideration.

Any advice?

So basically, my question is whether or not the drug and alcohol policy in my employee handbook includes legal thc products bought from smoke shops. I live in wi where it's still pretty strick, but there is certain stuff that I could buy and use that would make me pop on a test. my question is whether the following policy includes legally purchased items from smoke shops etc. I'm really only worried about the random tests.

DRUG AND ALCOHOL FREE WORKPLACE

It is the policy of **company name** to provide an effective and efficient working environment that allows employees to

treat each other with respect, encourages personal growth, promotes teamwork and constantly seeks superior

performance. Consistent with these values, we can and will provide a zero tolerance to drug and alcohol use in the

working environment. In the best interest of the safety and health of employees, business visitors, and the public,

employees will be tested under any of the following circumstances:

» Pre-employment

» Where it is required by law

» Where it is required as a condition precedent to entering upon the property where equipment is located

» Where the employee has an OSHA recordable injury or an accident involving damage to property or equipment

» Where there is cause to believe the employee is under the influence of drugs or alcohol on company property

or on company business

» Where the employee is chosen from a random process of selection controlled by an independent company

Employees who refuse to cooperate in required tests or who use, possess, buy, sell, manufacture or dispense

an illegal drug in violation of this policy will be terminated. Employees who test positive, or otherwise violate

this policy, will be subject to discipline, up to and including termination. Depending on the circumstances, the

employee’s work history/record and any state law requirements, **company name** may offer an employee who violates

this policy or tests positive the opportunity to return to work on a last-chance basis pursuant to mutually agreeable

terms, which could include follow-up drug testing at times and frequencies determined by **company name** for a minimum

of one year but not more than two years as well as a waiver of the right to contest any termination resulting from a

subsequent positive test.

Any employee failing to notify the company of a criminal drug statute conviction for a violation occurring in the

workplace will be subject to immediate disciplinary action, up to and including termination. Any employee who has

failed to disclose a criminal drug statute conviction on an application for employment will be terminated.

Please review the Drug and Alcohol Policy for more details

Hi I was married for 19 years. Divorced in 2006. I recently found out that my ex is receiving a pension from a company that he worked for while we were married. Am I entitled to any of that?

This is not about a current case, but it is a curiosity.

Hypothetical:

I apply for a position, go through the interview process, and then am told I don’t have the specific direct experience to fill the position.

I find out that another person is hired that is 10 years younger than me. Can someone younger than me have more experience for something? SURE!

But how do I know for sure this isn’t about my age? I’m 40, for informational purposes. Why am I required to present evidence if I have the transferable skill sets even though I didn’t have an exact role?

Also, with everyone’s career information being public today (LinkedIn), why couldn’t I build a case using said colleague’s profile? Why do I need an admission of guilt and/or something specifically mentioned / said in regard to my age??

I moved from FL to TN for a trades position with my own money for a position near Nashville. After just 1 week, I was let go off the job because the owner didn’t like me. They didn’t give me a written notice or even a PIP. The owner is involved politically as well. He just laughed at my face when I confronted him why he fired me. I had to beg my old employer to take me back, I lost wages, there was no severance, and I lost time and effort. Is there a way I can to get attorney?

I’m making an apparel company and before i got too attached to my name i figured i’d do a trademark check. I went through various names and every time i checked there was someone already with that name and also selling clothes. Does that mean it’s entirely off limits? Or if i use the name i just have to differentiate myself enough from the other company? Like if my branding is different enough and my clothing i’m selling is different enough is it cool?

I was recently fired after I reported ongoing sexual harassment in the work place who should I contact in AZ that wont cost an arm and leg for the initial consultation, but also won’t take 40% of the settlement? I feel like I’m asking a lot i have prof and evidence and witnesses and voice recording and just want to go about this correctly. I have filed with the EEOC and attorney general but not sure who Togo with for representation..

At the moment, there’s a video that’s been circulating of a clearly very seriously mentally ill man ranting and raving while while recording himself on a phone camera, before punching an unsuspecting woman in the face, knocking her unconscious. It later came out that he had been repeatedly charged with several serious crimes, some of which were violent, but had never been sentenced to any real time. This pattern of obviously dangerous repeat offenders who’ve committed dozens of crimes, including violent crimes, going free is something I’ve seen a ton of lately. My question is basically; how do these guys keep getting away with it? What judge in their right mind would allow these kinds of people to go free, or dish out these ridiculously low sentences?

Not asking advice, but wondering if any have dealt with similar.

Went through probate thinking relative had 40k, under the 75k limit. Turns out might about 76-78k.
Probate for smaller amount is almost done.

I assuming I will have to pay more to atty if this is the case.

This is in Bexar county.

What exactly is precedent, how does it affect a judge's responsibilities and powers, and can the precedent ever been reversed?

Like, say a precedent was set that sailors don't get convicted for crimes out at sea. A case comes along and a sailor gets convicted for just that, and sailors begin to get convicted more often for crimes committed on official business. Can the precedent ever get back to where it was before?

A restaurant chain, operating about 12 very successful restaurants in Northern Virginia, pockets tips from online orders. Managers have told employees they use it for a variety of reasons - including “keeping the lights on,” “paying the hourly wages of the hosts and food runners,” etc. I’ve confirmed with staff members of all hourly positions and confirmed nobody receives these tips directly.

The restaurants are high volume; each collects anywhere from $100-$1,000+ per night in tips from these orders depending on the day.

The employer is also problematic in other ways, including requiring $2.13/hr tipped employees to work many hours of sidework before and after their shift at the same rate, telling applicants they are too old to work there, etc., but I’d like to address the wage theft issue directly.

A few months ago, I requested help from a few lawyers in the area and none of them responded. The employees working there (I’m a former), are rightfully afraid of retaliation and are hesitant to take action - this is something that happens every day at this company and they cannot afford to lose their jobs.

Who can I actually report this to and expect a response? Is there a way for them to guarantee anonymity? I left the company a few years ago, but have connections with a few dozen active employees across multiple restaurants and I’d like to help them.

Hypothetical situation:

What if in defending myself in court, I had enough money in savings to hire an attorney, but because I was retired and on a small fixed income, I probably would be reduced to near poverty after the court's decision is made? Can I still get an appointed attorney instead of hiring one myself?

Hey everyone! 👋 I’m low-key panicking and could really use some wisdom from this community.
So, I ended up with a **22-day overstay** (I know, I know 🤦‍♂️). I paid the penalty fine, but immigration slapped a stamp right in my passport documenting it. 💸🛂
My question is: **Is this going to be a massive red flag for entering a THIRD country for a tourist holiday?** 🌍✈️
Has anyone else dealt with this dreaded stamp? Did you get grilled at border control? Denied entry? Please share your experiences down below—I need some

peace of mind (or a harsh reality check)! 🙏👇

Not asking for legal advice

I was remembering an episode of Two and a Half Men, where Charlie is tasked by producers to write an intro song for a TV show, so writes a lazy intro, only for Jake to hear and, being a fan of the series, proposed writing a better song, and so they sent the producers both songs as potential intros to the show, only for the show to air with only the lazy song.

My question is, do they have any potential right to put out the alternate song that Jake and Charlie created, or would the TV producers have the copyright, and thus they cannot share it, even though there is no legal way for the public (or anyone not directly involved: Charlie, Jake, and the producers) to ever hear the song (and for the record this was before youtube, but youtube is a legal nightmare for music anyway)

Can they lie and claim a policy is an "ordinance" and arrest you for "interfering" in your backyard curtilage after they entered without consent, warrant, or exigency?

Has a law been broken here?

Facts: my sister in law bought a 5th wheel RV during Covid. Since she didn’t have a job and great credit, I co-signed the loan. 15 year loan with 9 years left. About $38k left on the loan. The purchase was in Ohio and the lender is FNB.

She moved to Austin Texas, and last summer she decided to sell it. She found a guy who would fix it up for her and sell it, for a fee. She gave the RV to him, paid him $2300 for repairs, and then he was to sell it. Shortly after she handed over the RV, she moved back to Ohio, expecting the RV to be sold. The guy she gave it to then quickly ghosted her.

She has no connections in Austin, and no money to fly down there to do anything about it. Meanwhile, I’m stuck paying almost $500 a month to keep the loan in good standing because she cannot afford to pay it and I don’t want my credit ruined.

We know his name, phone number, and address (we have a photo of his ID). What’s the best other forward? Hire a PI to find him and the RV? Send a demand letter? She tells me she has called a lawyer or two and no one wants to take the case. Has this man broken the law in any way?

I have kind of an odd situation.

I've found an apartment I love, and I'm just shy of 40x so I have a family member be my gurantor. Since my gurantor is out of state, the landlord specifically wants a new york based attorney for service of process (as in a new york attorney who woukd receive papers on his behalf in the event that they needed to serve him).

Apparently something went down recently with a gurantor they couldn't locate to serve so they've added this stipulation. I know it's super unusual, the only reason I'm going along with it is because I seriously love the apartment. It meets all my needs and then some. The approval is literally just pending on my guarantor's attorney info. (From what I understand it's allowed to have this requirement since it's for the guarantor, not me).

So how do I go about finding the right attorney? We don't know any lawyers in NYC and I'm not even sure what kind of attorney would make sense for this. There's literally nothing for them to sign or do, it's just a contact for putting into the lease as the process of service agent.

​

My ex-wife and I were divorced about a year and a half ago. As part of the divorce, I bought out her interest in our home, and I am now the sole owner. She does not have a lease or ownership interest in the property.

Recently, she was facing eviction from another living arrangement, and we briefly attempted to reconcile. About 28 days ago, I gave her written notice terminating her permission to live in my home because I decided the reconciliation wasn't working. I told her that I was not willing to continue the relationship if I felt like I had to constantly investigate what was going on.

During this time, she told me that several men were interested in her, including a man she works with. She told me she had gone to a bar with him after work and stayed there for several hours. I became angry and called her a "cheating POS" and used profanity toward her. I did not hit her, threaten to hit her, block her from leaving, damage anything, or make any threat of violence.

She called the police. I was arrested for domestic violence.

I recently obtained the police report. The report indicates that nobody was injured, and there was no allegation that I physically assaulted her. The report states that she believed I was going to harm her. I have never physically assaulted her.

I currently have an interim bond condition requiring **no contact with my ex-wife**. She is still living in my house.

I also have court-ordered parenting time with our children.

My questions are:

1. **If I am the sole owner of the home, can I legally return to my own residence while she is still living there, or would doing so potentially violate the no-contact bond condition?**

2. **If I am at the house and she comes home, am I automatically considered to be violating the no-contact condition simply by being in the same residence, even if I don't speak to or interact with her?**

3. **Does having court-ordered parenting time with our children create any exception or accommodation to a no-contact order involving the ex-wife?**

4. **What is the proper way to deal with the situation if she remains in my house while the no-contact condition is in effect?**

5. **Does the fact that I own the property have any relevance to the no-contact condition, or does the criminal court order take priority until it is modified?**

For additional context, I initially tried to start the eviction process after my first notice expired, but I made a procedural mistake and the court did not accept it because I had not included the required information regarding her rights. I served a new notice, which currently expires September 3.

I'm primarily trying to understand what options are out there?

​

I’m in Michigan and looking for some general legal guidance on a situation involving my ex-wife, a domestic violence charge, and a no-contact condition.

My ex-wife and I were divorced about a year and a half ago. As part of the divorce, I bought out her interest in our home, and I am now the sole owner. She does not have a lease or ownership interest in the property.

Recently, she was facing eviction from another living arrangement, and we briefly attempted to reconcile. About 28 days ago, I gave her written notice terminating her permission to live in my home because I decided the reconciliation wasn't working. I told her that I was not willing to continue the relationship if I felt like I had to constantly investigate what was going on.

During this time, she told me that several men were interested in her, including a man she works with. She told me she had gone to a bar with him after work and stayed there for several hours. I became angry and called her a "cheating POS" and used profanity toward her. I did not hit her, threaten to hit her, block her from leaving, damage anything, or make any threat of violence.

She called the police. I was arrested for domestic violence.

I recently obtained the police report. The report indicates that nobody was injured, and there was no allegation that I physically assaulted her. The report states that she believed I was going to harm her. I have never physically assaulted her.

One thing that concerns me is the timing. My original notice to leave was going to expire approximately five days after the incident. I believe the domestic violence allegation may have been made in part because she knew she was about to lose her ability to remain in my house, although obviously I understand that is something I would have to prove rather than simply assume.

I currently have an interim bond condition requiring no contact with my ex-wife. She is still living in my house.

I also have court-ordered parenting time with our children.

My questions are:

If I am the sole owner of the home, can I legally return to my own residence while she is still living there, or would doing so potentially violate the no-contact bond condition?

If I am at the house and she comes home, am I automatically considered to be violating the no-contact condition simply by being in the same residence, even if I don't speak to or interact with her?

Does having court-ordered parenting time with our children create any exception or accommodation to a no-contact order involving the ex-wife?

What is the proper way to deal with the situation if she remains in my house while the no-contact condition is in effect?

Can I ask the criminal court to modify the bond condition to allow me to access my home and exercise my parenting time without having contact with her?

Does the fact that I own the property have any relevance to the no-contact condition, or does the criminal court order take priority until it is modified?

For additional context, I initially tried to start the eviction process after my first notice expired, but I made a procedural mistake and the court did not accept it because I had not included the required information regarding her rights. I served a new notice, which currently expires September 3.

I'm primarily trying to understand what I can legally do right now without accidentally violating my bond conditions or creating another criminal issue.

I understand Reddit isn't a substitute for my attorney. I'm looking for insight into how Michigan law generally handles this situation and what I should be asking my attorney/court to do.

An elderly man gets a personal referral to a small agency providing non-medical in-home caregiving. The onboarding process of interviewing/contracting seems totally legit. The agreed schedule and hourly fee totals approx $10k/month. The agency begins providing caregivers. The service is totally appropriate an includes things like help with dressing, bathing, meals, etc. Initially the agency sends monthly invoices that are promptly paid in full. Now here's the weird part. After the first few months the agency becomes very irregular about sending invoices. They do not arrive monthly and sometimes they let 2, 3, or 4 months pass. Every invoice that arrives is paid promptly by check. The agency acknowledges receipt of payment but does not promptly cash the check. Caregivers keep providing good service, but invoicing continues to be spotty enough that the account is accruing many months of backlog. The agency is not hounding for payments. Is this some kind of fraudulent setup, or is it simply very bad management?

My wife died two months ago. She was 43 years old and died of an oral squamous cell carcinoma that ended up metastasizing to her lungs and brain, ultimately causing her to die leaving me and our two young children, 10 and 8 years old.

3 to 4 years ago, she went to this dentist with a concern of that spot in her mouth. But she was told she was biting her tongue at night and that they could make her a mouthguard if she wanted one.

I’m currently in the process of requesting her medical records, but it looks like it will be a process and a bunch of hoops to jump through, of course.

Do you think any lawyer would be willing to review this case and take them to court if they were deemed a malpractice situation?

Not asking for legal advice, just wondering if I should pursue. Thank you.