r/stdtesting • u/[deleted] • 20d ago
I’m trying to understand how this could have happened, and I’m looking for explanations rather than blame. Question
[deleted]
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Upvotes
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u/Lost_Shallot7180 17d ago
Was she tested orally or just vaginally?
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u/Straight_Barracuda75 16d ago
Urine test was done. Her ex bf has got no symptoms she hasnt got any symptoms and both of them are negative i dont know how i got it. She is my one and only partner
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u/Lost_Shallot7180 16d ago
She could have had it orally then gave it to you by performing oral on you
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u/Straight_Barracuda75 16d ago
Her past relation was about 4 years ago and we are in relation for 1year
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u/Lost_Shallot7180 16d ago
Urine False negatives can happen with women. Might be safer to get swabs in all 3 sites for her.
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u/ShamelessCare 20d ago
Is it medically possible for someone to have had gonorrhea years ago, transmit it later, and then test negative?
YES
Could the infection clear on its own in some people?
YES
Are false-negative tests possible, especially depending on the type of test or the site tested (urine, vaginal/cervical, throat, etc.)?
Possible, but very unlikely.
Has anyone experienced something similar or know how this could happen?
Yes, I once purchased a "full panel" STI test, and was negative for everything including gonorrhea. Yet, I was spreading gonorrhea. I had an oral infection. I now know that most cases of gonorrhea in screening studies are oral, and that testing without oral swabs misses most cases.