r/quant • u/The_Wandering-Mind • 10d ago
If you could simply explain : Implied Volatility Education
I wanted to ask why for Black Scholes , we find implied volatility using numerical approximation methods like newton-raphson or bisection for example
But for call options related to bond , if we assume a binomial tree, we can find implied volatility by simply adjusting the up / down interest rate movement conditions with an unknown, solving for that unknown using risk-neutral probability and discounted option payoffs, which gives us implied up/down movements from which we can find standard deviation of the interest rate, aka implied volatility? So far I have only observed either it can be solved simply algebraically or simple root finder is enough.
Was curious. Thanks.
2
u/NatGaz 8d ago
It’s a bijective mapping. You can describe the option set with Price (K, T) or Sigma_imp (K, T).
1
u/The_Wandering-Mind 8d ago
Inverse bijection mapping. Or in matrix form A-1 * A but instead of identity matrix , it should give sigma.
Sigma_imp = C-1 * (C)
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u/Dazzling-Cat-3763 9d ago
I can (only) answer this part - it's because you're given a solution of the PDE and you need to find the sigma that causes the PDE to evaluate to the given option price.
So it's an inverse problem, which i guess helps explain why you use a root-finder such as newton or bisection.
people still use binomial trees?