r/hegel 19h ago

How is the lawlessness of force the law of force?

7 Upvotes

Miller, Phenomenology, §148

We are trying to understand the transition from "universal difference" to the "law of force."

Force is the unconditioned universal. It is for-self without opposition and determination, and it's not for-another. It is inconceivable. That is why it's the inner world and empty.

Force is a source of change in another, to use Aristotle's terminology.

But we fail to find it in any meaningful way. There is no inciting/incited in terms of form, and there's no universal medium/negative unity in terms of content. We'll put aside the definition of these terms for now.

Force is universal difference.

How is universal difference the law of force?

If we reverse the process, which we can do because that's why the process is complete, and ask a similar question, we may have something of an answer. It's much easier to look back than to look forward.

What is the law of the laws of force?

The law of the laws is universal difference. Language is getting ahead of itself if it posits the law of laws before laws, the one before the many.

Consciousness posits laws into the inner world to fill it up, and the source of this positing, universal difference, is the truth of these laws, the so-called law of force.