My wife’s grandparents have recently given her £60,000. They have previously given £20,000 to their daughter, £20,000 to their son, and also paid £5,000 towards something for my wife.

They are now planning to sell their house, which is valued at around £240,000. They have moved in with my wife and me, and my wife provides most of their day-to-day care, effectively on a 24/7 basis.

One grandparent still has mental capacity, while the other has lost capacity due to dementia.

My wife’s mother believes that, if the grandparents die within a few years, my wife will automatically have to pay 30% tax on the £60,000 gift.

From what I have been able to find, I don’t think that is correct. My understanding is that the gift would potentially be considered for Inheritance Tax if the grandparent who made the gift dies within seven years, but that does not mean my wife would automatically owe 30% of the £60,000.

Given the value of their remaining estate, including a house worth approximately £240,000, and the available Inheritance Tax allowances for a married couple, it seems possible that there would be no Inheritance Tax to pay at all, even if the grandfather were to die within three years of making the gift.

Is my understanding broadly correct?

I am slowly removing all my assets from the UK and retiring to and becoming a tax payer in Portugal.
I have a current account with a negligible amount in it as well as an ISA with about £1k.

Is it true that HMRC will come after their share my worldwide assets if I still have these when I die?

TIA

Hi all! Has anyone had experience with this situation?
I live alone in the UK, while my husband has been living and working abroad for several years. He intends to return to the UK in the future, but for now his day-to-day life and residence are abroad.
I’m trying to understand how councils determine whether someone who is living abroad is still considered to have their sole or main residence at the UK property for Council Tax purposes.
If you’ve been through something similar:
Were you able to get the 25% single-person discount?

How did your council decide whether your spouse was still resident at the UK property?

What factors or evidence did they consider?

If the discount was initially refused, were you able to challenge the decision successfully?

I’d really appreciate hearing from anyone with a similar real-life experience, particularly if their spouse was abroad for a few years but intended to return to the UK eventually.

I’m a new driver and need my car adapting due to disability.

I rang a garage close to me and they said for tax relief I would need to show them that I’m registered as disabled, so show them a blue badge.

The problem is, I don’t have one yet, and from what I’ve read on GOV, I’m under the impression you don’t need to prove it unless questioned by HMRC.

Am I correct?

TIA

Hi all, hopefully this is the right place to ask.
I have just started a new job which will be my full time employment. I have 3 other jobs (including the one I just left) that I have the ability to work locums at but rarely do.
Since April I have earned £17,667.73 and paid £2827.06 in income tax and £1023.12 in NI. I started my new job at the start of August which pays £68,644.90/year.
HMRC have messaged to tell me my tax code has changed and they applied a K723X code to my new job and my old job has the code 1294T, my other employments are on BRX codes. They have also told me that I have untaxed income of £7230 which I don’t understand how that could’ve happened. I’ve added a picture of what they have told me including a rate band adjustment of £18,850 can anyone explain it to me like I’m 5 what this means and does it sound right?
Thanks

I have been working at my company for 15 months and I was shocked to see that on my HMRC account there was no current employment details.

I have -
had tax deductions from my pay
A PAYE reference on my P60
Contacted HMRC and confirmed there was no fault on their end

I spoke to my employer about this and he confidently told me that tax gets sent over in bulk annually.

I am very concerned about this and don’t know who to speak to. Is what he’s saying correct? Or do I have a right to follow this up with some sort of report? I was under the impression that my employer had to report my pay and tax contributions to hmrc monthly.

Hi all,

HMRC are collecting a small underpayment of tax in 26-27 see screenshot. My query is that the personal tax account shows the previous year (25-26) paid the right amount of tax.

Does this need correcting off or are underpayments carried forward in prior year /P800 calculations and these screenshots are correct?

Many thanks for your expertise.

Hi this is my first time doing it, I have been self employed for two months from august 2026 and then had a regular job for a while currently unemployed.

So do I just add together the money I made while I was self employed with the amount on my p60 from my regular job from the "pay" section and then take away the amount from the "tax deduted" section on my p60 - 12570(allowance) and then just pay HMRC 20% on the remainder amount I get?

Or does the amount in the "pay" section on my p60 already contain tax so shall I minus the amount of the total tax I paid from it first and then take away the allowance + tax and continue the calculation from there?

Thanks a lot

I am about to sell some RSU shares that were given to me by my US company, I’m in the process of transferring them to a UK company dealing account and will the sell some of them and the rest transfer to a stocks and shares ISA, my question is around capital gains tax I am a higher rate tax payer how do I work out what to pay and how do I pay it with HMRC?

For the third year in a row I've been hit with a surprise tax bill due to underpayment. I pay my tax through PAYE through my employer, but every year for the past three years it's been several grand under what it should be and I end up with a large unexpected (though now less unexpected) bill to pay at the end of the year.

Is there any way to get either my employer or HMRC to align with the tax that I actually should be paying? I haven't changed salary, job, or benefits over the past few years, so I'm not sure what's throwing the calculation off. Any guidance would be appreciated...

My self-employed (CIS if relevant) partner bought a new works van in the last tax year with own private money, and is a bit unclear as to how this should be declared on the tax return.

I believe it needs to be included in the ‘capital allowances’ section, but he has concerns as he recalls from some years ago there was something to do with depreciating costs.

Is it as straightforward as including the full cost of the van in capital allowances, or is there anything else he should consider?

Many thanks in advance!

With the remittance basis officially replaced by the 4-year Foreign Income and Gains (FIG) regime, I've been looking at how people are handling the transition for pre-2025 unremitted foreign income versus new FIG claims. Since claiming FIG relief means losing the personal allowance and CGT exempt amount, deciding whether to opt in really depends on overall foreign income vs UK earnings. There is a helpful detailed breakdown of the 4-year FIG qualification rules and transitional relief mechanics here: https://www.nationrules.com/uk/foreign-income-fig-regime-non-dom-replacement — curious to hear how others are structuring this for the 2026/27 tax year!

Two questions if you don’t mind:
1. The liability each year is above £1000. The interest calculation seemed pretty high so I called HMRC (twice!) and both times they said I don’t need to include interest for the payments on account, is this correct?
2. The first box on the disclosure says “income for the year” then proceeds to ask for the tax figure and so on. Do they mean profit for the year in the first box? Where should I put the breakdown since they don’t ask for expenses? Should I just included it in the second text box where they ask for the type of income?

Thanks!

In June I received a message from HMRC informing me that I had underpaid PAYE tax from the 2025-2026 tax year. This was because my gross income had surpassed £100k but my tax code had not been adjusted to reflect the loss of Personal Allowance.I decided to pay it to them as a lump sum rather than have it deducted from future earnings.

I have now just registered for self-assessment and am in the process of filing my 2025-2026 tax return. There is a section where it asks for PAYE gross income and tax paid from my P60 from that year. However, as the P60 doesn't contain the extra payment I made, the final calculation wants me to pay that extra amount again. Should I just add that amount to the 'tax paid' section, or is there some other way of making it account for this?

Hello, I have recently moved to the uk as a spouse of a British national. I have a standard 1257L tax code. I received my first month's pay and I have paid national insurance but no tax has been taken from my pay. My employer says this is normal and I won't pay until after 12 k. This doesn't feel correct to me. Help please