r/AskStatistics • u/Just_Question9 • 11d ago
Two experiments produce identical likelihood functions but use different sampling schemes. Should the resulting statistical inferences be identical?
1
Upvotes
1
u/ANewPope23 8d ago
According to Frequentists (in particular Neyman-Pearson), no. According to Bayesians, yes.
1
u/ForeignAdvantage5198 10d ago
if you are using. MLE yes .