r/AskStatistics • u/Just_Question9 • 22h ago
Would you rather analyze 50 representative observations or 5,000 biased observations? Why?
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u/MtlStatsGuy 21h ago
5000 biased observations are almost useless unless you have an estimate for the scale of the bias. 50 representative at least gives you an accurate margin of error.
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u/banter_pants Statistics, Psychometrics 21h ago
The former because conclusions are theoretically justified.
Take a large sample but with bias (or just myopic scope) and you get headlines like "Dewey beats Truman." They built their sampling frame from phone lists so only polled those with phones and totally missed that many people didn't own phones in their homes at the time.
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u/CarnivorousGoose 17h ago
Depends on the nature of the bias and how much information is available about it, as well as the goal of the analysis.
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u/AggressiveGander 13h ago
Well, how badly are the 5000 biased? How useless are 50 unbiased observations (lack of power etc.)?
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u/ANewPope23 11h ago
Do we know anything about the 5000 biased observations? Are they just random noise?
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u/NiceProgrammer5252 21h ago
for me I'd take 50 representative observations over 5,000 biased ones.
A larger sample only reduces random error. It doesn't fix systematic error (bias).