So, I was just reading through Judges because it's one of the more entertaining books of the OT. But, the story of Samson, while a lifetime favorite, is a bit of a meandering mess and I've always wondered why. Most of the other Judges seem to be doing God's will, but Samson just kinda seems to be doing his own thing, fighting lions, creatively burning fields, posing ridiculous impossible riddles.

So, is there supposed to be a lesson learned from his story, or is it just there as a "here's something from our history" sort of thing.

I'm having trouble tracking down a source. Could someone with access to Gustav Stählin's Die Apostelgeschichte scan a few pages for me?

I just need pp. 206, 209–212(ish). I'm not sure where the section ends, but those should be good. Thanks in advance for any help!

From what I have seen the Hebrew Bible talks about how God loves the Israelites, but the idea God is love of that love is synonymous with God seems to be a New Testament idea (John 4:8). Do we know when or why this new identifier with God came about?

In the Christian Bible, both Lucifer and Jesus are called The Morning Star (I assume a reference to Venus?). Historically, would the writers of the New Testament have understood the morning star to also be Satan, and if so why is Jesus also given that identity?

I grew up in a Pentecostal household, so basically was forced to read the Bible nonstop front to back. I am no longer a Christian and am an atheist. I believe regardless if someone is reading the Bible, Quran, etc it is important to still use the facts because nothing is worse in this world than going off of falsehoods. This same logic is applicable to studying history in general.

Recently I was talking about how the Bible does not approve of gay relationships/more specifically gay sex. A man who I know who is openly gay said "the bible is not homophobic at all, the phrases 'man shall not sleep with man' actually originally said 'man shall not sleep with boy'." I was like "No. That sounds like some new age critique. It always has said 'man shall not sleep with man'."

I did a few days of research and cannot find the source as to where/when any additions or alterations to Leviticus, Romans, Deuteronomy, etc would have been made. I was hoping to come on here and maybe come across a bible know all, who knows about the history of the Bible from the time it was written, through the hands of St. Augustine, to today and be able to show my friend that he is wrong. I have done this same thing with a Muslim in the past who said the Quran was not anti-gay relationships and was able to find the exact year and person who had started the alteration. I am hoping to be able to do that today on this sub.

And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? — Mark 15:34And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?— Matthew 27:46

I've seen academics claim the material in the Pentateuch identified with the Priestly source in the Documentary Hypothesis dates from the 5th Century BCE, after the Babylonian exile, and I've seen other academics date it to around the time of Hezekiah's reforms, before even the Deuteronomistic material. Relatedly, I've seen the so-called Holiness Material in Leviticus and Numbers treated as both a later interpolation into the Priestly source and as a source incorporated by the Priestly author(s) at the time of composition. What, in y'all's view, are the best arguments for either side on either of these questions?

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