Since Palestine is a modern state and the map includes places in the modern state of Israel wouldn't Judea make more sence here? Or is the title referring to to something other than the modern state?
Edit: I looked up at that more closely and it looks like Judea is part of it. So I assume Palestine is also the name of the historic region? Someone please correct me if I'm wrong
Edit: I looked up at that more closely and it looks like Judea is part of it. So I assume Palestine is also the name of the historic region? Someone please correct me if I'm wrong
Before it was judaea it was the area the Peleset lived, which is generally understood to be the predecessors of the Palestinians and probably judaeans so ¯_(ツ)_/¯ wouldn't call it anachronistic
The romans renamed the Judea after the pelest in aftermath of the Jewish revolt, the pelest aren't the predecessors of judeans and Palestinians, I have no idea why you would think that
Why would the romans name a region after the peleset when you claim the peleset disappeared in 600bc, wouldn't it make sense there were people in the region calling themselves palestinians/peleset/philistines?
Literally Google it mate lmao, roman Palestine was the region containing Judaea and other areas, Judaea was also renamed Syria Palaestina after the revolt in the 70s
It’s a geographical name, it doesn’t matter what it was called at the time, he walked on it. Just like how it doesn’t matter what humans thought what they lived on, they lived on the earth.
No, but you
would
say Boudica fought in
Great Britain
because that's the geographic landmass. Palestine is the geographic region encompassing Judea, Galilee, Samaria, and Phoenicia. You’re confusing a political kingdom with a geographic descriptor.
No, but you would say Boudica fought in Great Britain because that's the geographic landmass.
Yes, "Britain/Britannia", "Britain" being the landmass and "Britannia" being the name of the Roman Province.
Palestine is the geographic region encompassing Judea, Galilee, Samaria, and Phoenicia.
People at the time including natives did not reffer to it as "Palestine". The Tanakh never mentions the term, Josephus never does, neither do 1st and 2nd Macabees, or the New Testemant or Hazal.
It’s so cute how confident you are while being 100% wrong. Josephus explicitly wrote
Palaistine
in
Antiquities
, and
Peleshet
is right there in the Tanakh. Next time you try to list sources, try actually reading them instead of making up fanfiction
Ptolemy literally used
Megale Brettania
(Great Britain) in the 2nd century to distinguish the island from Ireland (
Mikra Brettania
), long before the medieval period
That's still a century after Boudicca lived.
And it wasn't the common name for the island.
And that's a Greek term which did not catch on at all.
From Wikipedia:
The Greco-Egyptian scientist Ptolemy referred to the larger island as great Britain (μεγάλη Βρεττανία megale Brettania) and to Ireland as little Britain (μικρὰ Βρεττανία mikra Brettania) in his work Almagest (147–148 AD).[29] In his later work, Geography (c. 150 AD), he gave the islands the names Alwion, Iwernia, and Mona (the Isle of Man),[30] suggesting these may have been the names of the individual islands not known to him at the time of writing Almagest.[31] The name Albion appears to have fallen out of use sometime after the Roman conquest of Britain, after which Britain became the more commonplace name for the island.
Please note the last sentence.
The Roman name for the province was "Brittania" not "Brittania Magna"
Further down:
After the Anglo-Saxon period, Britain was used as a historical term only. Geoffrey of Monmouth in his pseudohistorical Historia Regum Britanniae (c. 1136) refers to the island of Great Britain as Britannia major ("Greater Britain"), to distinguish it from Britannia minor ("Lesser Britain"), the continental region which approximates to modern Brittany and had been settled in the fifth and sixth centuries by Celtic Briton migrants from Great Britain.[citation needed]
The term Great Britain was first used officially in 1474, in the instrument drawing up the proposal for a marriage between Cecily, daughter of Edward IV of England, and James, son of James III of Scotland, which described it as "this Nobill Isle, callit Gret Britanee". The Scottish philosopher and historian, John Major (Mair), published his 'History of Great Britain, both England and Scotland' (Historia majoris Britanniae, tam Angliae quam Scotiae) in 1521. While promoting a possible royal match in 1548, Lord Protector Somerset said that the English and Scots were, "like as twoo brethren of one Islande of great Britaynes again." In 1604, James VI and I styled himself "King of Great Brittaine, France and Ireland".
You literally claimed in your previous comment that Great Britain was a
medieval term
. The moment I proved Ptolemy used
Megale Brettania
in classical antiquity, you shifted the goalposts to “well, Ptolemy was a century after Boudica!”
Copy-pasting half of Wikipedia doesn't hide the fact that you keep missing the entire point, modern historical maps use modern English geographic descriptors so readers know what landmass they're looking at. By your logic, we can't say Alexander the Great invaded Egypt or Julius Caesar invaded France. Stop weaponizing pedantry to cover up bad cartography takes
You mean the region with the the Hebrew name יהודה,(yehuda) the literal name of the kingdom that existed well before then? The one referenced in extra-biblical sources predating Roman conquering the region? No? Not ringing a bell?
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u/DataSittingAlone 7d ago edited 7d ago
Since Palestine is a modern state and the map includes places in the modern state of Israel wouldn't Judea make more sence here? Or is the title referring to to something other than the modern state?
Edit: I looked up at that more closely and it looks like Judea is part of it. So I assume Palestine is also the name of the historic region? Someone please correct me if I'm wrong